Consider $n$ integer-valued and independent random variables $e_1, e_2, \dots, e_n$ with known distribution functions $m_1, m_2, \dots, m_n$. Let's denote with $E^{1..n}$ the random variable given by the sum of $e_1, e_2, \dots e_n$, that is $E^{1..n} = \displaystyle\sum_i{e_i}$. The PDF of $E^{1..n}$, $m^{1..n}$, is given by the convolution of $m_1, m_2, \dots, m_n$.
I would like to calculate $P(E^{1..n} = 1 \,| \,e_1 = 1)$.
My intuition tells that that this is equal to $P(E^{2..n} = 0) P(e_1=1)$ but I just can't figure out the math behind it.