We know that in classical two-phase Stefan problems, let's say in the temperature distribution of ice-water problem here, the governing PDEs are: \begin{equation} \left. \begin{aligned} C_1\frac{\partial T_1}{\partial t}=\nabla\cdot(k_1\nabla T_1),\ in\ \Omega_1\\ C_2\frac{\partial T_2}{\partial t}=\nabla\cdot(k_2\nabla T_2),\ in\ \Omega_2\\ \end{aligned} \right\} \end{equation} which is also usually written in the following form: \begin{equation} C_i\frac{\partial T}{\partial t}=\nabla\cdot(k_i\nabla T),\ in\ \Omega,\\ \end{equation} where \begin{equation} k_i (C_i)=\left\{ \begin{aligned} k_1 (C_1)\ in\ \Omega_1\\ k_2 (C_2)\ in\ \Omega_2\\ \end{aligned} \right. \end{equation} so that it becomes a PDE with space-dependent coefficient, which seems to be reasonable. But after looking into this equation, I found that in this way I am enforcing additional constraints on temperature derivatives at the phase-change interface. I mean, the temperature derivatives with respect to both time and space are discontinuous and thus is not defined at the interface in the original problem. But when combining them together in a single form, I think we are implicitly violating the above conditions. Therefore, I don't think they can be written in the second form (the combined form).
But I am not sure if there is something inappropriate with my point of view. Perhaps it's just that I am thinking too much? Could you please leave your comments about it? Any comment is welcome! I would greatly appreciate it!