In passing I was told by someone that $K^{\prime}\in\mathbb{R}^{n\times n}$, will be easier to solve by an algebraic multigrid preconditioned conjugate gradient (CG-AMG) solver than $K$, where $K$ is a discretized elliptic (2nd order) differential operator, that is symmetric positive definite, and \begin{align*} K^{\prime}=K+D, \end{align*} where $D$ is a positive definite diagonal matrix. For an example problem, I have observed that solving $K^{\prime}x=b$ consistently requires less CG-AMG iterations than the CG-AMG iterations for solving $Kx=b$.
I would like to understand why this is the case. So please, if you understand why this is the case I would appreciate your input.
$\textbf{Update -- following discussion in comments}$ with lightxbulb.
\begin{align*} \lambda_{\text{min}}(K^{\prime})=\min_{x\in\mathbb{R}^{n},\|x\|_2=1} (x^{\top}K^{\prime}x)=y^{\top}K^{\prime}y, \end{align*}
here $y\in\mathbb{R}^{n}$ is a unit length vector which satisfies $y^{\top}K^{\prime}y=\lambda_{\text{min}}(K^{\prime})$. Furthermore
\begin{align*} y^{\top}K^{\prime}y\geq y^{\top}Ky\geq\min_{x\in\mathbb{R}^{n},\|x\|_{2}=1}x^{\top}Kx=\lambda_{\text{min}}(K), \end{align*}
so that $\exists \epsilon_{2}\geq 0$, such that $\lambda_{\text{min}}(K^{\prime})=\lambda_{\text{min}}(K)+\epsilon_{2}$.
Similarly
\begin{align*} \lambda_{\text{max}}(K)=\max_{x\in\mathbb{R}^{n},\|x\|_{2}=1}x^{\top}Kx=z^{\top}Kz \end{align*}
\begin{align*} z^{\top}Kz\leq z^{\top}K^{\prime}z\leq\max_{x\in\mathbb{R}^{n},\|x\|_{2}=1}x^{\top}K^{\prime}x=\lambda_{\text{max}}(K^{\prime}) \end{align*}
so $\exists \epsilon_{1}\geq 0$, such that $\lambda_{\text{max}}(K^{\prime})=\lambda_{\text{max}}(K)+\epsilon_{1}$, finally
\begin{align*} \kappa(K^{\prime})=\frac{\lambda_{\text{max}}(K^{\prime})}{\lambda_{\text{min}}(K^{\prime})}=\frac{\lambda_{\text{max}}(K)+\epsilon_{1}}{\lambda_{\text{max}}(K)+\epsilon_{2}} \end{align*}