Timeline for Second derivative in coordinate invariant form
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
12 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Feb 24, 2018 at 11:14 | vote | accept | ronalddb89 | ||
| Feb 21, 2018 at 15:34 | vote | accept | ronalddb89 | ||
| Feb 24, 2018 at 11:14 | |||||
| Feb 21, 2018 at 14:03 | answer | added | Bort | timeline score: 1 | |
| Feb 21, 2018 at 12:17 | vote | accept | ronalddb89 | ||
| Feb 21, 2018 at 15:34 | |||||
| Feb 21, 2018 at 9:05 | comment | added | cfdlab | If $u=(u_1,u_2)$ is the velocity, then on the symmetry boundary $u_2 = 0$. This gives $\frac{\partial \phi}{\partial x_2} = 0$ which is enough to solve your problem. What you are trying to specify is too much information which cannot be used as a boundary condition for Laplace equation. Once you solve the problem, you can a posteriori verify if those conditions are satisfied upto some numerical errors. | |
| Feb 21, 2018 at 8:33 | answer | added | HBR | timeline score: 0 | |
| Feb 21, 2018 at 8:17 | history | edited | ronalddb89 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Feb 21, 2018 at 8:13 | comment | added | ronalddb89 | @PraveenChandrashekar That would make things a lot simpler. I added the initial derivation to my post. | |
| Feb 21, 2018 at 6:34 | comment | added | cfdlab | The horizontal boundaries are symmetric boundaries, so should it not be $\frac{\partial\phi}{\partial x_2} = 0$ on these two boundaries ? | |
| Feb 20, 2018 at 16:11 | history | edited | ronalddb89 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Feb 20, 2018 at 16:06 | history | edited | ronalddb89 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Feb 20, 2018 at 14:18 | history | asked | ronalddb89 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |