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user37078
user37078
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What would happen if I wrote a finite-difference code evaluated at a point where the function isn't differentiable, analytically?

I'm trying to think analytically vs numerically.

Thanks,

What would happen if I wrote a finite-difference code evaluated at a point where the function isn't differentiable, analytically?

I'm trying to think analytically vs numerically.

Thanks,

What would happen if I wrote a finite-difference code evaluated at a point where the function isn't differentiable analytically?

I'm trying to think analytically vs numerically.

Thanks,

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user37078
user37078
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Can If analytically, a function is not differentiable at a point, does it make sense to write a finite-differencing methods be used difference code for athe function at that doesn't have an explicit formulapoint?

IfWhat would happen if I wrote a finite-difference code evaluated at a point where the function doesn't have an explicit formula, and we don't know how smooth it isisn't differentiable, can we use finite differences to compute its derivativeanalytically? Would that make sense, or do people use finite differences only for functions that have explicit formulas and is also known

I'm trying to be differentiable / smooth enough?think analytically vs numerically.

Thanks,

Can finite-differencing methods be used for a function that doesn't have an explicit formula?

If a function doesn't have an explicit formula, and we don't know how smooth it is, can we use finite differences to compute its derivative? Would that make sense, or do people use finite differences only for functions that have explicit formulas and is also known to be differentiable / smooth enough?

If analytically, a function is not differentiable at a point, does it make sense to write a finite difference code for the function at that point?

What would happen if I wrote a finite-difference code evaluated at a point where the function isn't differentiable, analytically?

I'm trying to think analytically vs numerically.

Thanks,

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user37078
user37078
  • 13
  • 3

If a function doesn't have an explicit formula, and we don't know how smooth it is, can we use finite differences to compute its derivative? Would that make sense, or do people use finite differences only for functions that have explicit formulas and is also known to be differentiable / smooth enough?

If a function doesn't have an explicit formula, and we don't know how smooth it is, can we use finite differences to compute its derivative? Would that make sense, or do people use finite differences only for functions that have explicit formulas and is also known to be differentiable?

If a function doesn't have an explicit formula, and we don't know how smooth it is, can we use finite differences to compute its derivative? Would that make sense, or do people use finite differences only for functions that have explicit formulas and is also known to be differentiable / smooth enough?

Source Link
user37078
user37078
  • 13
  • 3