For example, I have a function to optimize: $$f_1(x,y) = x^2+y^2, \quad x_{lb}\le x\le x_{ub},\quad y_{lb}\le y\le y_{ub}$$ Then I apply rotation by $\theta$ plus translation by $x_0$ and $y_0$: $$f_2(x,y) = ((x+x_0)\cos\theta + (y+y_0)\sin\theta)^2 + (-(x+x_0)\sin\theta + (y+y_0)\cos\theta)^2$$ Intuition tells these functions are equivalent given bounds are far enough from $x_0$ and $y_0$. However, practical optimization methods, e.g. Differential Evolution, usually have problems with rotated and translated functions - they optimize original functions well, but no so good the rotated versions.
So, I'd like to know some formal general proof that for optimization (especially non-convex case) these functions should be equivalent. And it's also interesting to hear reasoning why DE optimization methods may fail.