I am looking at a heat initial value problem \begin{align} \frac{\partial u}{\partial t}-\nabla^2u = f\quad&\text{in}\quad \Omega\times(0,T)\\ u = g \quad&\text{on}\quad \partial\Omega\times(0,T)\\ u = u_0\quad&\text{in}\quad \Omega\times\{0\} \end{align} which I have succesfully solved with the finite element method along with a time-stepping scheme, so that is not my question. My question is however, it seems to work to just solve the boundary value problem \begin{align} -\nabla^2u = f\quad&\text{in}\quad \Omega\\ u = g \quad&\text{on}\quad \partial\Omega\\ \end{align} for various fixed times, e.g. $f(x,y,0),f(x,y,0.1),$ etc. This seems to give a good approximation of the solution to the initial value problem, and I don't understand why. This simply ignores the time-derivative it seems to me (of course, the functions $f$ are the same for both problems so the "information" of the time-derivative is not lost, but it still confuses me). Is this simply the method of lines?
Thanks