The answer is "yes" if the matrix $Q$ is at most rank-2.
First, we note that for the equality to hold for all $x$, we must
have $d=e=f_{0}=g_{0}=0$. The reason is that function $\Phi(x)=x^{T}Qx$
is quadratic homogenous, meaning it satisfies $\Phi(0)=0$ and $\Phi(\alpha x)=\alpha^{2}\Phi(x)$,
whereas (1) would not be quadratic homogenous if these values weren't
set to zero.
Next, we show that the RHS is the quadratic form of a rank-2 matrix.
First, note that with $d=e=0,$ we have
$$
\text{(1) =}\begin{bmatrix}F(x)\\
G(x)
\end{bmatrix}^{T}\begin{bmatrix}a & \frac{1}{2}c\\
\frac{1}{2}c & b
\end{bmatrix}\begin{bmatrix}F(x)\\
G(x)
\end{bmatrix}
$$
and that with $f_{0}=g_{0}=0$, we have
$$
\begin{bmatrix}F(x)\\
G(x)
\end{bmatrix}=\begin{bmatrix}f_{1} & \cdots & f_{n}\\
g_{1} & \cdots & g_{n}
\end{bmatrix}\begin{bmatrix}x_{1}\\
\vdots\\
x_{n}
\end{bmatrix}=\begin{bmatrix}f & g\end{bmatrix}^{T}x,
$$
by defining $f=[f_{1},\ldots,f_{n}]^{T}$ and similarly for $g=[f_{1},\ldots,f_{n}]^{T}$.
Combining the two and applying Gaussian elimination yields
$$\begin{align*}
(1) & =x^{T}\begin{bmatrix}f & g\end{bmatrix}\begin{bmatrix}a & \frac{1}{2}c\\
\frac{1}{2}c & b
\end{bmatrix}\begin{bmatrix}f & g\end{bmatrix}^{T}x.\\
& =x^{T}\begin{bmatrix}f & g\end{bmatrix}\begin{bmatrix}1 & 0\\
\frac{1}{2}c & 1
\end{bmatrix}\begin{bmatrix}a & 0\\
0 & b-\frac{1}{4}c^{2}/a
\end{bmatrix}\begin{bmatrix}1 & 0\\
\frac{1}{2}c & 1
\end{bmatrix}^{T}\begin{bmatrix}f & g\end{bmatrix}^{T}x\\
& =x^{T}\left(\begin{bmatrix}f & g\end{bmatrix}\begin{bmatrix}1 & 0\\
\frac{1}{2}c & 1
\end{bmatrix}\right)\begin{bmatrix}a & 0\\
0 & b-\frac{1}{4}c^{2}/a
\end{bmatrix}\left(\begin{bmatrix}f & g\end{bmatrix}\begin{bmatrix}1 & 0\\
\frac{1}{2}c & 1
\end{bmatrix}\right)^{T}x\\
& =x^{T}\left(\mu_{1}v_{1}v_{1}^{T}+\mu_{2}v_{2}v_{2}^{T}\right)x
\end{align*}$$
where
$$
\mu_{1}=a,\quad\mu_{2}=b-\frac{c^{2}}{4a},\quad v_{1}=f+\frac{c}{2}g,\quad v_{2}=g.
$$
Finally, we use the above result to write a closed-form solution.
Given a rank-2 decomposition for the left-hand side $Q=\mu_{1}v_{1}v_{1}^{T}+\mu_{2}v_{2}v_{2}^{T}$,
we pick any choice of $c$ and write
$$
a=\mu_{1},\quad b=\mu_{2}+\frac{c^{2}}{4a},\quad G(x)=v_{2}^{T}x,\quad F(x)=(v_{1}-\frac{c}{2}v_{2})^{T}x
$$
to yield the desired decomposition. The decomposition is clearly nonunique,
because it remains valid for any choice of $c$ that conforms to the
equation above.