I am currently trying to familiarise myself with (Pseudo-)Spectral Methods for solving differential equations. Now, I am struggling to understand some obviously crucial concept of this approach. The notes that I have read so far proceed their explanation of spectral methods roughly as follows:
The solution $f(x)$ to a differential equation $A f = b$ is approximated by an expansion in terms of basis functions $\phi_m(x)$ such that
$$f(x) \approx p_N(x) = \sum_{m=0}^N a_m \phi_m(x)$$
The notes then always highlight Chebyshev polynomials $T_m(x)$ as a particularly suitable choice for $\phi_m(x)$ in nonperiodic cases. Also the collocation points are chose as the roots of Chebyshev polynomials (I assume the roots of the highest order Chebychev polynomial?).
Now, all these notes then suddenly switch the representation of $p_N(x)$ to cardinal functions (e.g. Lagrange interpolations $C_m(x)$), such that
$$p_N(x) = \sum_{m=0}^N f(x_m) C_m(x)$$
I assume the major advantage here is that the Lagrange interpolations satisfy
$$C_m(x_i) = \delta_{im}$$,
and that therefore the requirement that the differential equation is satisfied at the collocation points uncouples the equations, such that it reduces to
$$A f(x_i) = b \quad , \qquad i = 0, \ldots, N$$
Is this true so far?
-> If so, then why do all my notes at first introduce Chebychev polynomials as a suitable choice if then Lagrange polynomials turn out to be a much more suitable choice. Why the detour?
-> If not, what am I missing here? Where does my understanding fail?