Consider the Stokes problem and the usual divergence operator $B:V \rightarrow Q'$, $\langle Bv, q\rangle = b(v,q)=(\operatorname{div} v,q)$ and its discrete versione $B_h : V_h \rightarrow Q_h'$.
In the lecture notes, I read the following consideration:
It must be $\dim(V_h) \geq \dim(Q_h)$. If not, then $\ker(B_h)= \{0\}$ and the only solution to $Au + B^t p =f$ is is $u=0$.
Question: Why does $\dim(V_h) < \dim(Q_h)$ implies $\ker(B_h) =\{0\}$?
For the inf-sup condition on $B_h$ to be satistfied, I need $B_h$ to be surjective, BUT if I have a linear application (to make an example) from $\mathbb{R}^3 \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^5$, then by the rank theorem: we have indeed $$3 = \dim(\text{Im}) + \dim(\ker)$$ and this implies that it cannot be surjective. I'd say that the only way for that remark to make sense is when I have equality in the dimensions: in that case, being surjective is equivalent to be injective. Therefore, $B_hu_h=0$ only for $u_h=0$.
But I feel link I'm missing something: consider the following discussion, found on Brezzi-Boffi-Fortin: Mixed finite elements
He says essentially that, even if you don't have equality in the dimensions, you're going to have $\ker(B_h)=\{0\}$, and I really can't figure out why.